"Much of the world's attention over these two weeks has been on the role played by Islam. France is home to some 5m-6m Muslims, one-third of the total in the European Union and almost one-tenth of the country's population. Some French Muslims have been radicalised by such recent events as the September 11th terrorist attacks, the Iraq war (even though France opposed it) and the ban on wearing the Muslim headscarf in state schools (which was imposed in early 2004). Yet the French government has tried harder than many to integrate its Muslims, to create institutions to represent them, to work closely with imams and mosques, and to keep a wary eye on Islamic extremists. In any case, despite claims that the riots are France's intifada, they have not taken on a religious tinge. The rioters have not been the more devout Muslims; indeed, they include many non-Muslims." - The Economist, 10 Nov 05.

I see this issue being raised repeatedly in the Op-Ed pieces from the news links section of this site. Above is yet another quote on the issue from a well written magazine. This one, as do some others, directly refutes much of the reporting and opinionating in other sources by claiming that the rioting is NOT religiously motivated or based. So what's the opinion of the prestigious and august readership of this board? Religiously motivated or not? Is there an opportunity for Islamists to hijack the situation if it is not originally of their creation? If so, what could they accomplish? I dont see the Islamic Republic of France emerging from all this.