Originally Posted by
AmericanPride
In what sense? I'd imagine that 'post-1945' Arab Nationalism was 'firmly rooted' in pre-1945 Arab Nationalism, which had been developing since the start of the century. On the one hand, you say that the "creation of Israel [as] the primary source of Pan-Muslim discontent is utter rubbish", but then on the other, you claim that Arab Nationalism is founded in National Socialism, which specifically targeted Jews as a part of its program. I don't imagine the creation of a Jewish homeland in the midst of an awakening 'nationalsocialist' community would be anything but at least a source of discontent.
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