Wolfsberger, the early U.S. elections had property requirements for voting eligibility. That WAS oligarchy. Less than 1% of the population voted in 1792. Medieval independent German cities were more of a republic than that.
The constitution did not ensure that voting rights were truly universal. That lesson had to be learned and was incorporated in later constitutions with a more precise wording.
The U.S. itself corrected much of this problem with a patchwork of amendments, but there are still over 5 million people excluded from voting because of felonies in the U.S. - and the responsible legislation varies between states. Even minor offenses suffice to take away many people's voting rights.
This and the horrible effects of a pure majority voting system (-> two party system) are among the most important lessons learned for later constitutions. The lingering threat of rotten boroughs is another failure of the U.S. and many states' constitution(s). Some congressional district redefinitions have strongly favoured the ruling party of the state.
I retract the "likely".No. Period. To borrow a quote, "You are likely ill-informed."
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