Interesting. But, I'm not sure I understand how it has been decided that the emerging battlefield is more urban than rural. Iraq, perhaps. But not Afghanistan. I'm just not certain there is more evidence toward urban warfare now than there was before or less evidence of rural than there was before. Is there really a change based on data or is it a largely untested perception? And, is the data based on a changing definition of what urban and rural are or is it a static definition we used to compare the past with now? Just curious because it is something I've heard before but I just don't know that the evidence/data supports the assertion.