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    Council Member M-A Lagrange's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Bill Moore View Post
    I personally felt the argument fell short when they argued that Yemen wasn't a battlefied, so therefore the mission was illegal. Whereever we kill terrorists is a battlefield, it isn't confined to a specific geographical region. It seems ludricous to believe that if a terrorist is conducting operations againstthe U.S. outside of a designated battlespace we can't kill him. Were these same arguments made when President Clinton launched missiles into Sudan and Afghanitan in the late 90s in an attempt to kill UBL?
    Well, in case of Yemen, the situation is a little in the grey area (As for Somalia).
    The thing is that actions taken in Northern Yemen are conducted in an environment that is not controlled by central government and where the Yemeni government is conducting military actions. (In Somalia, there is no legal government out of 3 blocks in Mogadishu...)

    As the area is already a battlefield (or can be assimilated to) for the Yemeni government, it can be argued that as there is already a battlefield, a military action conducted by an ally in that area against a shared legitimate target is legitimate if not legal.

    Where it becomes fuzzy is when you conduct such operations in a country where there are no battlefield at all. For example a drone attack on a drug lord in Mexico. (And yes, Slap, there are no battlefield in Mexico, under legal definition, even if there is a "war against drug")

    An interesting article from 2008, published by ICRC summaries quite well the question: can just at bellum override just in bello
    http://www.icrc.org/eng/assets/files...872-moussa.pdf

    I found the reflection on the problematic of intervention against VNSA quite interesting and well presented:

    no amount of legal argument will persuade a combatant to respect the rules when he himself has been deprived of their protection …This psychological impossibility is the consequence of a fundamental contradiction in terms of formal logic …It is impossible to demand that an adversary respect the laws and customs of war while at the same time declaring that every one of its acts will be treated as a war crime because of the mere fact that the act was carried out in the context of a war of aggression.
    The conclusion is, as usual, very consensual:
    Determining the existence of a ‘just’ or legal jus ad bellum cause is essentially a political and hence subjective exercise. Throughout its history, the UN Security Council has largely avoided making a determination of aggression, leaving the matter, essentially, to the discretionary determination of states. Allowing such a determination to colour, in any way, the application of jus in bello undermines the rule of law in an area of international law that requires strict restraining principles. The matter is even more controversial in the case of conflict between a state and non-state actors, in which both parties tend to subordinate international humanitarian law to jus ad bellum.
    It is less targetted on the issue than Mike but I hope this also helps to understand where the legal reflection comes from, on the IHL side.
    Personnaly, I tend to be against the "geographically unlimited battlefield".
    Last edited by M-A Lagrange; 10-03-2011 at 06:06 AM.

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